Question 3 (unrelated to the previous 2 questions)

I got curious and so I put the prophets within their estimated historical context.  It just so happens that they all fall within the time frame of the monarchy, when Israel had a king and was like all the other nations.  It is also during this time that Israel’s leaders claim that God was telling them to commit genocide on a number of nations.  But it is also during this time that God was telling the Jewish people, through prophets like Isaiah, that He wasn’t listening to their prayers for blessing or their worship because their hands were covered with the blood of un-repented-for sin.

My question is this: Should the timing of the prophets’ calls to Israel effect the way in which we interpret, particularly, the time of the monarchy?

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